Question: The logical statement $(p \Rightarrow q)^{\wedge}(q \Rightarrow \sim p)$ is equivalent to:
(1) $p$
(2) $q$
(3) $\sim P$
(4) $\sim q$
Correct Option: , 3
Solution:
Clearly $(p \Rightarrow q) \wedge(q \Rightarrow \sim p)$ is equivalent to $\sim p$
