Question: The Boolean expression
$((\mathrm{p} \wedge \mathrm{q}) \vee(\mathrm{p} \vee \sim \mathrm{q})) \wedge(\sim \mathrm{p} \wedge \sim \mathrm{q})$ is equivalent to:
$\mathrm{p} \wedge(\sim \mathrm{q})$
$p \vee(\sim q)$
$(\sim p) \wedge(\sim q)$
$\mathrm{p} \wedge \mathrm{q}$
Correct Option: , 3
Solution:
(3) $(\sim p) \wedge(\sim q)$
