Question:
If p and q are in inverse proportion, i.e. pq = k (constant), then (p + 2)and (q – 2) are also in inverse proportion.
Solution:
False
If p and q are in inverse proportion, then
xy = k (constant)
e.g. Let p = 3andq = 4
Then, pq = 3×4 = 12
Now, p+ 2 = 3+ 2 = 5 and q-2 = 4-2 =2
(p + 2) (q – 2) = 5 x 2 = 10 [not in inverse proportion]
Henc, (p+2) and (q -2)cannot be in inverse proportion.
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